I listened to the member’s comments about the term “sexual misconduct,” and I’m sorry; I have to ask this question very legitimately: if the member actually Googled that term, it is not made up. It happens to appear in the Canadian Armed Forces lexicon. The reason that it would be used is because “sexual misconduct” refers to all nature of behaviour, not just what would be termed criminal, such as violence or harassment.

So my question would be, why is the member advocating that we would use a term or terminology that would significantly, by definition, limit the conduct that this would apply to, when “sexual misconduct” is a term used frequently to include not just criminal acts, but also everything down to sexist jokes, sexist comments and that type of thing? I’m legitimately baffled, and I would love to hear an explanation from the member.